Metafora Mindaqu.. Menerjah Sempadan Imiginasi: Full Set CCNA Final Test

01. When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what is usually used to acknowledge that the data was received and to request the retransmission of missing data?

IP
UDP
Ethernet
a connectionless acknowledgement
an upper-layer, connection-oriented protocol or service

02. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?

Connection 1 – rollover cable
Connection 2 – straight-through cable
Connection 3 – crossover cable

Connection 1 – crossover cable

Connection 2 – rollover cable
Connection 3 – crossover cable

Connection 1 – straight-through cable
Connection 2 – crossover cable
Connection 3 – crossover cable

Connection 1 – straight-through cable
Connection 2 – crossover cable
Connection 3 – straight-through cable

Connection 1 – crossover cable
Connection 2 – straight-through cable
Connection 3 – crossover cable

03. Which OSI layer does IP rely on to determine whether packets have been lost and to request retransmission?

application
presentation
session
transport

04. Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct destination socket number for a web page request from Host A to the web server?

00-08-a3-b6-ce-46
198.133.219.25:80
http://www.cisco.com
C 198.133.219.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0

05. A PC can not connect to any remote websites, ping its default gateway, or ping a printer that is functioning properly on the local network segment. Which action will verify that the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly on this PC?

Use the ipconfig /all command at the host’s command prompt.
Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt.
Use the traceroute command at the command prompt to identify any failures on the path to the gateway.
Use FTP to check for connectivity to remote sites.
Download a troubleshooting tool from the PC manufacturer’s website.

06. Which type of media is immune to EMI and RFI? (Choose two.)

10 Base-T
10 Base-2
10 Base-5
100 Base-FX
100 Base TX
1000 Base LX

07. Refer to the exhibit. The command that is shown was issued on a PC. What does the IP address 192.168.33.2 represent?

IP address of the host
default gateway of the host
IP address of the homepage for the host
primary domain name server for the host
IP address of the website resolver1.mooki.local

08. Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending email between clients. Select the list below that correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram.

1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
1.MDA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MUA 7.POP 8.MDA
1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

09. What is true regarding network layer addressing? (Choose three)

uses a flat structure
prevent broadcasts
heirarchical
uniquely identifies each host
48 bits in length
contains a network portion

10. Which OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data communication services?

application
presentation
session
transport
network

11. Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical offices failed and was replaced. Although a ping to 127.0.0.1 was successful, the replacement computer can not access the company network. What is the likely cause of the problem?

IP address incorrectly entered
network cables unplugged
subnet mask incorrectly entered
network card failure

12. Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured with the source MAC address 0050.7320.D632 and the destination MAC address 0030.8517.44C4. The packet inside the captured frame has an IP source address 192.168.7.5, and the destination IP address is 192.168.219.24. At which point in the network was this packet captured?

leaving host A
leaving ATL
leaving Dallas
leaving NYC

13. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the information that is given? (Choose two.)

This exchange is part of the three-way handshake.
The source port indicates that a Telnet session has been initiated.
The data is flowing from server to client.
The destination port indicates that an HTTP session has been initiated.
The data listed is associated with the transport layer.
The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.

14. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the IP configuration that is shown, what is the reason that Host A and Host B are unable to communicate outside the local network?

Host A was assigned a network address.
Host B was assigned a multicast address.
Host A and Host B belong to different networks.
The gateway address was assigned a broadcast address.

15. Which of the following are the address ranges of the private IP addresses? (Choose three.)

10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
200.100.50.0 to 200.100.25.255
150.150.0.0 to 150.150.255.255
172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
127.16.0.0 to 127.31.255.255

16. Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from 172.16.128.0 through 172.16.159.255?

172.16.128.0 255.255.255.224
172.16.128.0 255.255.0.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.192.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.255.192

17. Which password is automatically encrypted when it is created?

vty
aux
console
enable secret
enable password

18. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)

TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.

TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.
UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.
TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.

19. When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command?

when the interface is functioning as a DTE device
when the interface timers have been cleared
when the connected DTE device is shut down
when the interface is functioning as a DCE device

20. Which two functions of the OSI model occur at layer two? (Choose two.)

physical addressing
encoding
routing
cabling
media access control

21. A routing issue has occurred in you internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error?

access point
host
hub
router
switch

22. Refer to the exhibit. With the router running NAT, what IP addresses can be applied to the computer to allow access to the Internet? (Choose three)

192.168.18.38
192.168.18.48
192.168.18.49
192.168.18.52
192.168.18.59
192.168.18.63

23. Due to a security violation, the router passwords must be changed. What information can be learned from the following configuration entries? (Choose two)

Router(config)# line vty 0 3 Router(config-line)# password c13c0 Router(config-line)# login

The entries specify three Telnet lines for remote access.
The entries specify four Telnet lines for remote access.
The entries set the console and Telnet password to “c13c0″.
Telnet access will be denied because the Telnet configuration is incomplete.
Access will be permitted for Telnet using “c13c0″ as the password.

24. As network administrator, what is the subnet mask that allows 510 hosts given the IP address 172.30.0.0?

255.255.0.0
255.255.248.0
255.255.252.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128

01. Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two.)

show flash
show NVRAM
show startup-config
show running-config
show version

02. Users in the network are experiencing slow response time when doing file transfers to a remote server. What command could be issued to determine if the router has experienced any input or output errors?

show running-config
show startup-config
show interfaces
show ip route
show version
show memory

03. Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to a clean router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command?

* enable password class   line console 0   password ccna

 * enable secret cisco    enable password class    line console 0    password ccna

* enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0   enable password class   line console 0   password ccna

* enable secret cisco   enable password 7 14141E0A1F17   line console 0   password 7 020507550A

* enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0   enable password 7 14141E0A1F17   line console 0

04. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator on HostA has problems accessing the FTP server. Layer three connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S1 interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB and run debug commands?

* RouterB(config)# enable secret class   RouterB(config)# line vty 0 4   RouterB(config-if)# login

* RouterB(config)# enable secret class   RouterB(config)# line vty 0 2   RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco   RouterB(config-vty)# login

* RouterB(config)# enable secret class   RouterB(config)# line vty 0   RouterB(config-line)# password cisco   RouterB(config-line)# login

* RouterB(config)# enable secret class   RouterB(config)# line aux 0   RouterB(config-line)# password cisco   RouterB(config-line)# login

* RouterB(config)# enable secret class   RouterB(config)# line aux 0   RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco   RouterB(config-vty)# login

05. The connection between routers B and C has been successfully tested. However, after rebooting router C, the administrator noticed the response time between networks 10.10.3.0 and 10.10.4.0 is slower. Ping between the two routers is successful. A trace route indicates three hops from router B to router C. What else can be done to troubleshoot the problem?

Ping router B S0/1 connection from router C.
Trace the connection between router B to router C S0/1.
Issue a show ip route command in router B to verify routing is enabled.
Issue a show ip interface brief command on router C.

06. What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?

Router# name Fontana
Router# hostname Fontana
Router(config)# name Fontana
Router(config)# hostname Fontana

07. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)

Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2

08. Refer to the exhibit. The output is shown for the show ip route command executed on Router A. What does the IP address 192.168.2.2 represent?

Gateway for the 192.168.1.0 network
Gateway for the 192.168.3.0 network
IP assigned to the serial port on Router A
IP assigned to the serial port on Router B

09. Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to this switch from hosts outside the local network?

NA-SW1(config-if)# no shutdown
NA-SW1(config)# enable password password
NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address
NA-SW1(config-if)# description description

10. In a Cisco device, where is the IOS file stored prior to system startup?

RAM
ROM
Flash
NVRAM

11. When network services fail, which port is most often used to access a router for management purposes?

Ethernet
Console
Telnet
SSH

12. A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a router to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?

Telnet
Console
AUX
SSH

13. In a Cisco router, when do changes made to the running-configuration take effect?

after a system restart
as the commands are entered
when logging off the system
when the configuration is saved to the startup-configuration

14. Refer to the exhibit. Which names correctly identify the CLI mode represented by the prompt for Switch-East4#? (Choose two.)

line configuration mode
user executive mode
global configuration mode
privileged executive mode
interface configuration mode
enable mode

15. Which three terms correctly define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)

hot keys
context-check
context-sensitive
structured check
command override
command syntax check

16. Which combination of keys would be used at the CLI prompt to interrupt a ping or traceroute process?

Ctrl-C
Ctrl-P
Ctrl-R
Ctrl-Shift-6
Ctrl-Z

17. Refer to the exhibit. What command will place the router into the correct mode to configure an appropriate interface to connect to a LAN?

UBAMA# configure terminal
UBAMA(config)# line vty 0 4
UBAMA(config)# line console 0
UBAMA(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
UBAMA(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1

18. On a Cisco router, which interface would be used to make the initial configuration?

Console

19. Refer to the exhibit. A student is responsible for the IP addressing, configuration and connectivity testing of the network shown in the graphic. A ping from host B to host C results in a destination unreachable but a ping from host B to host A was successful. What two reasons could account for this failure based on the graphic and partial router output for the Dallas router? (Choose two.)

The host A is turned off.
The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is shutdown.
The LAN cable is disconnected from host B.
The S0/0/1 IP address of Dallas is improperly configured.
The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is in a different subnet than host B.
The clock rate is missing on the serial link between Dallas and NYC.

01. Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)

connecting a PC to a router’s console port
connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports
connecting two switches together at gigabit speeds
connecting a PC to a switch at Gigabit Ethernet speeds
connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds

02. Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?

AUX interface
Ethernet interface
serial interface
console interface

03. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)

greater distances per cable run
lower installation cost
limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
durable connections
greater bandwidth potential
easily terminated

04. A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?

STP
UTP
coaxial
single-mode fiber
multimode fiber

05. What does the term “attenuation” mean in data communication?

loss of signal strength as distance increases
time for a signal to reach its destination
leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
strengthening of a signal by a networking device

06. How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?

30
256
2046
2048
4094
4096

07. Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?

255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0

08. A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?

255.255.255.0
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248

09. What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?

cross-over
straight-through
rollover
patch cable

10. Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?

hub
switch
bridge
router
repeater

11. Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a packet destined for PC2?

192.168.1.1
192.168.2.1
192.168.2.2
192.168.3.1
192.168.3.54

12. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?

both host A and B would be successful
host A would be successful, host B would fail
host B would be successful, host A would fail
both Host A and B would fail

13. Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco’s V.35 serial cables? (Choose three.)

RJ 11
DB 60
Winchester 15 pin
DB 9
smart serial
RJ 45

14. Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is shown?

15. What are two common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose two.)

cable color code association
cable selection and configuration
use of cable testers to determine pinouts
the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port
the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs

16. Refer to the exhibit. A student is setting up a home network primarily used for extensive file transfers, streaming video, and gaming. Which network device is best suited to these types of activities in the topology shown?

wireless access point
router
hub
switch

17. Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose three.)

They propagate broadcasts.
They enlarge collision domains.
They segment broadcast domains.
They interconnect different network technologies.
Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.
They maintain a common frame format between LAN and WAN interfaces.

18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet capture software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect the monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?

hub
router
firewall appliance
wireless access point

19. Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all devices are using default settings. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?

20. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology? (Choose three.)

Hosts B and C are in the same subnet.
Five broadcast domains are present.
Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.
Four broadcast domains are present.
Five networks are shown.
Host B is using a rollover cable to connect to the router.

21. To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable wiring option would be used?

crossover cable
straight through cable
rollover cable
V.35 cable

22. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)

Segment 1 uses backbone cabling.
Segment 1 uses a patch cable.
Segment 3 uses patch cabling.
Segment 3 uses vertical cabling.
Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.
Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.

23. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the 192.168.1.0/24 private IP address range for use in the network that shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this internetwork?

255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248

01. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

02. Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)

the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
the maximum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
the 96-bit payload padding inserted into a frame to achieve a legal frame size
the 96-bit frame padding transmitted between frames to achieve proper synchronization
the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame
the maximum interval within which a station must send another frame to avoid being considered unreachable

03. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?

The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.

04. After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?

the device involved in the collision with the lowest MAC address
the device involved in the collision with the lowest IP address
any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first
those that began transmitting at the same time

05. Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?

Collisions can decrease network performance.
It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.
Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.
CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies.

06. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?

No collisions will occur on this link.
Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

07. Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?

A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.

08. In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?

Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable segment.
Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub, to signal its turn.
Host B must send a request signal to Host A by transmitting an interframe gap.
Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.

09. Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

Network layer
Transport layer
Physical layer
Application layer
Session layer
Data-link layer

10. What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?

MAC sublayer
Physical layer
Logical Link Control sublayer
Network layer

11. Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)

dynamically assigned
copied into RAM during system startup
layer 3 address
contains a 3 byte OUI
6 bytes long
32 bits long

12. Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)

A packet with the destination IP of Router_B.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Switch_A.
A packet with the destination IP of Router_A.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.
A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Server_B.

13. Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93, a mask of 255.255.248.0, and a default gateway of 172.16.224.1. Host A needs to send a packet to a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on its address and subnet mask. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)

Host A will get a result of 172.16.224.0 from the AND process.
Host A will send on to the media a broadcast frame that contains the packet.
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the host 172.16.231.78.
Host A will change the destination IP of the packet to 172.16.224.1 and forward the packet.
Host A will encapsulate the packet in a frame with a destination MAC that is the MAC address associated with 172.16.224.1.

14. Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)

reduction in cross-talk
minimizing of collisions
support for UTP cabling
division into broadcast domains
increase in the throughput of communications

15. Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?

application
physical
transport
internet
data link
network access

16. What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)

recognizes streams of bits
identifies the network layer protocol
makes the connection with the upper layers
identifies the source and destination applications
insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment
determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting

17. What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)

addressing
error detection
frame delimiting
port identification
path determination
IP address resolution

18. What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)

coaxial thicknet
copper UTP
coaxial thinnet
optical fiber
shielded twisted pair

19. Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly identifies content that the frame data field may contain?

preamble and stop frame
network layer packet
physical addressing
FCS and SoF

20. What is the primary purpose of ARP?

translate URLs to IP addresses
resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
provide dynamic IP configuration to network devices
convert internal private addresses to external public addresses

01. Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?

Presentation
Transport
Data Link
Physical

02. An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?

light injector
OTDR
TDR
multimeter

03. Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)

It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.

04. When is a straight-through cable used in a network?

when connecting a router through the console port
when connecting one switch to another switch
when connecting a host to a switch
when connecting a router to another router

05. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?

coax cable
rollover cable
crossover cable
straight-through cable

06. Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?

electrical
optical
wireless
acoustic

07. In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?

BNC
RJ-11
RJ-45
Type F

08. Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?

generally uses LEDs as the light source
relatively larger core with multiple light paths
less expensive than multimode
generally uses lasers as the light source

09. Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?

backbone cable
horizontal cable
patch cable
work area cable

10. What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)

goodput
frequency
amplitude
throughput
crosstalk
bandwidth

11. With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?

the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously

12. What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?

create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
provide physical addressing to the devices
determine the path packets take through the network
control data access to the media

13. In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?

coax
fiber
Cat5e UTP
Cat6 UTP
STP

14. What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?

Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.
Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.
An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.
The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.

15. Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?

* (Third one is the correct one)

16. What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?

more host mobility
lower security risks
reduced susceptibility to interference
less impact of the surroundings on the effective coverage area

17. What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?

the metal braiding in the shielding
the reflective cladding around core
the twisting of the wires in the cable
the insulating material in the outer jacket

01. Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)

the Layer 3 protocol selected
the geographic scope of the network
the PDU defined by the transport layer
the physical layer implementation
the number of hosts to be interconnected

02.

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for www.server?

00-1c-41-ab-c0-00
00-0c-85-cf-65-c0
00-0c-85-cf-65-c1
00-12-3f-32-05-af

03. Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three.)

non-deterministic
less overhead
one station transmits at a time
collisions exist
devices must wait their turn
token passing

04. What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?

The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
Physical signal paths are defined by Data Link layer protocols.
Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.

05. What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)

network layer addressing
media sharing
application processes
logical topology
intermediary device function

06. What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)

Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD
defined as placement of data frames on the media
contention-based access is also known as deterministic
802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD
Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media
controlled access contains data collisions

07. Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)

Network usage is on a first come, first serve basis.
Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
Data from a host is received by all other hosts.
Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.
Token passing networks have problems with high collision rates.

08. A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawing?

logical topology
physical topology
cable path
wiring grid
access topology

09. What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?

is used as a padding for data
is used for timing synchronization
is used to identify the source address
is used to identify the destination address

10. What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card
Layer 2 identifies the applications that are communicating
Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme
Layer 4 directs communication to the proper destination network
Layer 4 addresses are used by intermediary devices to forward data

11.

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?

All three networks use CSMA/CA
None of the networks require media access control.
Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.
Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD.
Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.

12.

Refer to the exhibit. How many CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?

13.

Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)

source MAC – PC
source MAC – S0/0 on RouterA
source MAC – Fa0/1 on RouterB
source IP – PC
source IP – S0/0 on RouterA
source IP – Fa0/1 of RouterB

14. Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?

LLC
MAC
HDLC
NIC

15. What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)

The Layer 2 address must be reassigned.
The default gateway address should not be changed.
The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.
Applications and services will need additional port numbers assigned.
The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network.

16. What is a function of the data link layer?

provides the formatting of data
provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
provides delivery of data between two applications
provides for the exchange data over a common local media

17. What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?

The nodes are physically connected.
The physical arrangement of the nodes is restricted.
The media access control protocol can be very simple.
The data link layer protocol used over the link requires a large frame header.

18. What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?

provide routes across the internetwork
format the data for presentation to the user
facilitate the entry and exit of data on media
identify the services to which transported data is associated

19. What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?

define the logical topology
provide media access control
support frame error detection
carry routing information for the frame

20. What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)

They are 48 binary bits in length.
They are considered physical addresses.
They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.
They consist of four eight-bit octets of binary numbers.
They are used to determine the data path through the network.
They must be changed when an Ethernet device is added or moved within the network.

01.

Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will implement the IP addressing scheme for the LANs shown in the graphic?

02. Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)

172.16.4.127 /26
172.16.4.155 /26
172.16.4.193 /26
172.16.4.95 /27
172.16.4.159 /27
172.16.4.207 /27

03. Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)

NAT translates public addresses to private addresses destined for the Internet.
Only one company is allowed to use a specific private network address space.
Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router.
Network 172.32.0.0 is part of the private address space.
IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself.

04. Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP address and subnet mask?

binary adding
hexadecimal anding
binary division
binary multiplication
binary ANDing

05.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?

The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The default gateway is a network address.
The default gateway is a broadcast address.
The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.

06. What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?

255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0

07. Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)

172.168.33.1
10.35.66.70
192.168.99.5
172.18.88.90
192.33.55.89
172.35.16.5

08. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?

This is a useable host address.
This is a broadcast address.
This is a network address.
This is not a valid address.

09. A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?

172.16.0.0
172.16.192.0
172.16.192.128
172.16.192.160
172.16.192.168
172.16.192.176

10.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server’s properties to allow connectivity to the network?

IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.39
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.39 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.31
IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 default gateway: 192.168.10.1

11. Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.)

LAN workstations
servers
network printers
routers
remote workstations
laptops

12. Which of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)

larger address space
faster routing protocols
data types and classes of service
authentication and encryption
improved host naming conventions
same addressing scheme as IPv4

13. What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?

security
header format simplification
expanded addressing capabilities
addressing simplification

14. What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)

The router will discard the packet.
The router will decrement the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host.
The router will increment the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
The router will send an ICMP Redirect Message to the source host.

15.

Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?

The IP settings are not properly configured on the host.
Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host.
There is a problem at the physical or data link layer.
The default gateway device is not operating.
A router on the path to the destination host has gone down.

16. How many bits make up an IPv4 address?

17.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?

The router has an incorrect gateway.
Host A has an overlapping network address.
Host A has an incorrect default gateway configured.
Host A has an incorrect subnet mask.
NAT is required for the host A network.

18. What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)

identifies an individual device
is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain
is altered as packet is forwarded
varies in length
is used to forward packets
uses flat addressing

19. What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses?

an internet
a network
an octet
a radix

20. What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?

10101100. 00011001.01000011.00000000
10101100. 00011001.01000011.11111111
10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000
10101100. 00011001.01000010.01100011
10101100. 00010001.01000011. 01100010
10101100. 00011001.00000000.00000000

21.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?

255.255.255.248
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.252

01. In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?

destination network address
source network address
source MAC address
well known port destination address

02. What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?

source and destination MAC
source and destination application protocol
source and destination port number
source and destination IP address

03. In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?

The destination is contacted before a packet is sent.
The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that indicates the packet was received.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that requests the next packet to be sent.

04. Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?

type-of-service
identification
flags
time-to-live
header checksum

05. Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?

host portion
broadcast address
network portion
gateway address

06.

Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?

192.135.250.1
192.31.7.1
192.133.219.0
192.133.219.1

07. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?

The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
There is no impact on communications.

08. What is the purpose of a default gateway?

physically connects a computer to a network
provides a permanent address to a computer
identifies the network to which a computer is connected
identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks

09. What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?

dynamic
interior
static
standard

10. When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)

The router sends an ARP request to determine the required next hop address.
The router discards the packet.
The router forwards the packet toward the next hop indicated in the ARP table.
The router forwards the packet to the interface indicated by the source address.
The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.

11. What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)

gateways
purpose
physical addressing
software version
geographic location
ownership

12. What is a component of a routing table entry?

the MAC address of the interface of the router
the destination Layer 4 port number
the destination host address
the next-hop address

13. Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)

router
hub
switch
firewall
access point
bridge

14. What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)

too few broadcasts
performance degradation
security issues
limited management responsibility
host identification
protocol compatibility

15.

Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?

16. Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)

If no route to the destination network is found, the packet is returned to the previous router.
If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.
If multiple network entries exist for the destination network, the most general route is used to forward the packet.
If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.
If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.
If a host does not have a route manually configured for the destination network, the host will drop the packet.

17.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?

10.10.10.26
127.0.0.1
10.10.10.6
10.10.10.1
224.0.0.0

18.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)

Replace S2 with a router.
Place all servers on S1.
Disable TCP/IP broadcasts.
Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.
Disable all unused interfaces on the switches.

19.

Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)

192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
10.0.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 10.0.0.0 network.
192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
172.16.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 to the 172.16.0.0 network.
192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.

20. What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)

require no device configuration
provide routers with up-to-date routing tables
require less processing power than static routes require
consume bandwidth to exchange route information
prevent manual configuration and maintenance of the routing table

21. What statement describes the purpose of a default route?

A host uses a default route to transfer data to another host on the same network segment.
A host uses a default route to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all destinations.
A host uses a default route to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the local network.
A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.

01.

Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)

This is a UDP header.
This contains a Telnet request.
This contains a TFTP data transfer.
The return packet from this remote host will have an Acknowledgement Number of 43693.
This is a TCP header.

02. With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?

0 to 255
256 to 1022
0 to 1023
1024 to 2047
49153 to 65535

03. Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?

to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order

04. Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?

application
presentation
session
transport
network

05.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?

create a Layer 1 jam signal
reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged
send a RESET bit to the host
change the window size in the Layer 4 header

06. Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?

to synchronize equipment speed for sent data
to synchronize and order sequence numbers so data is sent in complete numerical order
to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data
to synchronize window size on the server
to simplify data transfer to multiple hosts

07. Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)

identifies the destination network
identifies source and destination hosts
identifies the communicating applications
identifies multiple conversations between the hosts
identifies the devices communicating over the local media

08.

Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?

session establishment
segment retransmit
data transfer
session disconnect

09.

Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)

The local host is using three client sessions.
The local host is using web sessions to a remote server.
The local host is listening for TCP connections using public addresses.
The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.
The local host is performing the three-way handshake with 192.168.1.101:1037.

10. What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?

destination logical address
source physical address
default gateway address
source port

11. What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)

flow control
low overhead
connectionless
connection-oriented
sequence and acknowledgements

12. What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?

sequence numbers
session establishment
window size
acknowledgments

13. Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?

TCP
IP
UDP
HTTP
DNS

14. Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?

sequencing
flow control
acknowledgments
source and destination port

15. Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination? (Choose three.)

flow control
urgent pointer
best effort delivery
session establishment
connectionless services
numbering and sequencing

16. During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?

The packets will not be delivered.
The packets will be retransmitted from the source.
The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.
The packets will be delivered and not reassembled at the destination.

17. Which is an important characteristic of UDP?

acknowledgement of data delivery
minimal delays in data delivery
high reliability of data delivery
same order data delivery

18. After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?

13
53
80
1024
1728

19. Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?

The two applications exchange data.
TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.
UDP establishes the maximum number of bytes to be sent.
The server acknowledges the bytes of data received from the client.

20.

Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next?

Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 0, SYN flag = 0 to Host2.
Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 0 to Host2.
Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 1 to Host2.
Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 0, SYN flag = 1 to Host1.
Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 0 to Host1.
Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 1 to Host1.

01. What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server?

HTML
HTTP
FTP
Telnet

02. What are two forms of application layer software? (Choose two.)

applications
dialogs
requests
services
syntax

03. A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model? (Choose two.)

centralized administration
does not require specialized software
security is easier to enforce
lower cost implementation
provides a single point of failure

04. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?

temporarily holds resolved entries
used by the server to resolve names
sent by the client to during a query
passes authentication information between the server and client

05. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?

HTTP
SSH
FQDN
DNS
Telnet
SMTP

06. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.)

ARP
DNS
PPP
SMTP
POP
ICMP

07. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.)

acts as both a client and server within the same communication
requires centralized account administration
hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files
can be used in client-server networks
requires a direct physical connection between devices
centralized authentication is required

08. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two.)

DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
HTTP transfers data from a web server to a client
POP delivers email from the client to the server email server
SMTP supports file sharing
Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access

09. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.)

MDA
IMAP
MTA
POP
SMTP
MUA

10. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?

not widely available
does not support encryption
consumes more network bandwidth
does not support authentication

11. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? (Choose three.)

routes email to the MDA on other servers
receives email from the client’s MUA
receives email via the POP3 protocol
passes email to the MDA for final delivery
uses SMTP to route email between servers
delivers email to clients via the POP3 protocol

12. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser? (Choose two.)

ASP
FTP
HTML
HTTP
HTTPS
IP

13. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type? (Choose two.)

User accounts are centralized.
Security is difficult to enforce.
Specialized operating system software is required.
File permissions are controlled by a single computer.
A computer that responds to a file sharing request is functioning as a server.

14. Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network?

physical
session
network
presentation
application
transport

15.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5?

80
1261
15533
3912
65520

16. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)

scalable
one way data flow
decentralized resources
centralized user accounts
resource sharing without a dedicated server

17. What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks?

DHCP
DNS
SMB
SMTP
Telnet

18. What are two characteristics of clients in data networks? (Choose two.)

use daemons
initiate data exchanges
are repositories of data
may upload data to servers
listen for requests from servers

19. What is the role of the OSI application layer?

provides segmentation of data
provides encryption and conversion of data
provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network
provides control of all the data flowing between the source and destination devices

20. How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services?

ceases all connections to the service
denies multiple connections to a single daemon
suspends the current connection to allow the new connection
uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the service

01. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)

determine pathways for data
initiate data communications
retime and retransmit data signals
originate the flow of data
manage data flows
final termination point for data flow

02. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)

define the structure of layer specific PDU’s
dictate how to accomplish layer functions
outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
limit the need for hardware compatibility
require layer dependent encapsulations
eliminate standardization among vendors

03. What are two functions of encapsulation? (Choose two.)

tracks delay between end devices
enables consistent network paths for communication
allows modification of the original data before transmission
identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication
ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device

04. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?

supports error detection
ensures ordered arrival of data
provides delivery to correct destination
identifies the devices on the local network
assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection

05. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)

Network
Transport
Physical
Data Link
Session

06. What is a PDU?

corruption of a frame during transmission
data reassembled at the destination
retransmitted packets due to lost communication
a layer specific encapsulation

07. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?

manage data flows
originate data flow
retime and retransmit data signals
determine pathways for data

08.

Refer to the exhibit. “Cell A” at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with “IP Phone 1″ at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device “Cell A?”

the destination device
an end device
an intermediate device
a media device

09.

Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)

Network A — WAN
Network B — WAN
Network C — LAN
Network B — MAN
Network C — WAN
Network A – LAN

10. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)

A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
The network is administered by a single organization.
The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection.
The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider.
A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization.
Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP).

11.

Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?

piping
PDU
streaming
multiplexing
encapsulation

12. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?

to identify devices on the local media
to identify the hops between source and destination
to identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the network
to identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating
to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices

13. What device is considered an intermediary device?

file server
IP phone
laptop
printer
switch

14.

Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the area B?

source
end
transfer
intermediary

15.

Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?

WAN
MAN
LAN
WLAN

16. Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?

physical
data link
network
transport

17. What can be identified by examining the network layer header?

the destination device on the local media
the destination host address
the bits that will be transferred over the media
the source application or process creating the data

18.

Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?

A, C, D
B, E, G, H
C, D, G, H, I, J
D, E, F, H, I, J
E, F, H, I, J

19. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?

No address is added.
The logical address is added.
The physical address is added.
The process port number is added.

20. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?

path determination and packet switching
data presentation
reliability, flow control, and error detection
network media control
the division of segments into packets

21. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?

physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transport
application, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentation
application, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network
application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical
presentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application

Monday, December 12, 2011

Full Set CCNA Final Test

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